Why did the industry change from a T+2 to a T+1 settlement cycle?

The change aims to improve operational efficiency in the market and reduce systemic, counterparty and operational risk in the settlement cycle.

Powered by IBot
Why is my cash not available for trading in my cash account?
Are AutoFX transactions subject to commissions and commission minimums?
Can I trade right away with funds from a closed trade in my IRA?
How can I learn more about the industry’s move to T+1 settlement?