The change aims to improve operational efficiency in the market and reduce systemic, counterparty and operational risk in the settlement cycle.
Why did the industry change from a T+2 to a T+1 settlement cycle?
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Why is my cash not available for trading in my cash account?
Are AutoFX transactions subject to commissions and commission minimums?
Can I trade right away with funds from a closed trade in my IRA?
How can I learn more about the industry’s move to T+1 settlement?